DCF and comps mechanics
Unlevered cash flow, WACC, terminal value and trading comparables, step by step
Superday depth · 4 min read · 7 check questions
At superday level, "walk me through a DCF" is followed by questions that test the mechanics: how you get from EBIT to free cash flow, where the discount rate comes from, why you might use one terminal value method over another, and how a comps table is put together. This lesson goes through each step with numbers.
Unlevered free cash flow
Unlevered free cash flow is the cash the operations generate for all capital providers. It is before interest, so it is not affected by how the company is financed.
Unlevered free cash flow = EBIT × (1 − tax rate)
+ depreciation and amortisation
− capital expenditure
− increase in net working capital
Worked example: one year of free cash flow
EBIT is £120m and the tax rate is 25%. D&A is £30m, capital expenditure is £45m and net working capital rises by £10m.
EBIT after tax = £120m × 75% = £90m
Free cash flow = 90 + 30 − 45 − 10 = £65m
Tax is calculated on EBIT, not on profit before tax, because the interest tax shield belongs in the discount rate. Stock-based compensation is often added back in company-reported figures, but many analysts treat it as a real cost and leave it in.
IFRS 16 needs a consistent choice. If your EBITDA and EBIT exclude lease costs, the lease payments are not in free cash flow, so subtract lease liabilities in the bridge from enterprise value to equity value. Alternatively, deduct lease payments in free cash flow and leave lease liabilities out of net debt. Mixing the two double counts or ignores the leases.
The discount rate
WACC = E/V × cost of equity + D/V × cost of debt × (1 − tax rate)
Cost of equity = risk-free rate + beta × equity risk premium
- Risk-free rate: for a sterling valuation, a long-dated gilt yield
- Beta: how much the share moves with the market, often taken from peers and adjusted for their leverage
- Equity risk premium: the extra return investors demand for owning shares over gilts, typically assumed at around 5% to 6%
- Cost of debt: the rate the company would pay to borrow today, which is taken after tax because interest is deductible
- Weights: target debt and equity at market values, not book values
Worked example: WACC
The ten-year gilt yields 4.5%, beta is 1.1 and the equity risk premium is 5.5%. The company borrows at 6% before tax, the tax rate is 25%, and the target mix is 70% equity and 30% debt.
Cost of equity = 4.5% + 1.1 × 5.5% = 10.55%
After-tax cost of debt = 6% × 75% = 4.5%
WACC = 70% × 10.55% + 30% × 4.5% = 7.385% + 1.35% = 8.735%, about 8.7%
Terminal value, discounting and the bridge
With perpetuity growth, terminal value = final-year free cash flow × (1 + g) ÷ (WACC − g). With an exit multiple, terminal value = final-year EBITDA × an EV/EBITDA multiple from comps. Good practice is to calculate both and check that each implies something sensible about the other: the growth rate implied by your exit multiple should look reasonable, and the multiple implied by your growth rate should sit near today's trading range.
Discount each year's cash flow by (1 + WACC)^n. Many banks use the mid-year convention, discounting each year's cash flow by half a year less, because cash arrives through the year rather than on the last day. The terminal value is discounted at the same point as the final year's cash flow if you use perpetuity growth, or at the end of the final year with an exit multiple.
Sum the present values to get enterprise value, then subtract net debt, lease liabilities if consistent with your free cash flow, non-controlling interests and preference shares, and add non-operating assets. Divide equity value by diluted shares, using the treasury stock method, to get value per share. Because diluted shares depend on the share price, some models iterate, but a single pass is fine in an interview.
Trading comparables
- Pick peers on business model first, then size, growth, margins and geography
- Pull the latest share price, diluted shares, net debt and other bridge items for each peer
- Take LTM figures from the latest annual and interim reports, and forecasts from broker consensus
- Adjust for one-off items, such as restructuring costs or gains on disposals
- Calendarise figures so every company covers the same period
- Work out the multiples and show the median and interquartile range
Calendarising matters because UK companies have a wide range of year ends. A retailer with a February year end and a manufacturer with a December year end are not reporting the same twelve months.
Worked example: calendarising
A peer's year ends in March. EBITDA was £80m for the year to March 2026 and is forecast at £92m for the year to March 2027. You want calendar 2026.
January to March 2026 comes from the year to March 2026: 3/12 × £80m = £20m
April to December 2026 comes from the year to March 2027: 9/12 × £92m = £69m
Calendar 2026 EBITDA = £89m
Putting it together
Bankers rarely rely on one method. A football field chart shows the value ranges from trading comps, precedent transactions, a DCF and sometimes an LBO side by side. Precedent transactions usually give the highest values, because they include control premiums. If a DCF gives a value far above the others, the most likely causes are an aggressive growth rate, a low WACC or an exit multiple taken from a peak market.
Expect the follow-up
After you explain a step, expect "why?" Why tax on EBIT, why market-value weights, why the median. A one-line reason for each is what separates a memorised answer from real understanding.
Check your understanding
Answer in whatever units feel natural, such as 40, £40m or 40,000,000
7 questions with new numbers each time and a worked solution for each
Calculators are fine